Briggs Softworks

The Hand:

Game: Limit Razz (2.50+0.25) - Stakes 2500/5000 Ante 625
Seat 1: ReApEr8 (25000) - sitting out
Seat 3: Yaz (58718)
Seat 4: LadyLuck (558) - sitting out
Seat 5: Silly_Rabbit (60500)
Seat 7: Halojumper76 (95724)
Seat 8: Getahanddan (59500)
ReApEr8 posts ante 625
Yaz posts ante 625
LadyLuck posts ante 558 (All-in)
Silly_Rabbit posts ante 625
Halojumper76 posts ante 625
Getahanddan posts ante 625
** Hole Cards ** [6 players]
** 3rd Street **
Dealt to ReApEr8 [9h]
Dealt to Yaz [6s]
Dealt to LadyLuck [Ks]
Dealt to Silly_Rabbit [3c]
Dealt to Halojumper76 [Qs]
Dealt to Getahanddan [Ah]
Silly_Rabbit brings in for 625

Silly_Rabbit was forced to pay the bring in with [3c]

The closest rule I can find is WSOP Rule #225 - If the participant with the low card is all-in for the ante, the person to that participant’s left acts first. If the participant with the low card has only
enough chips for a portion of the bring-in , the wager is made. All other participants must enter for at least the bring-in amount in the structure.

https://www.wsop.com/2019/2019%20WSOP%2 ... FINAL).pdf (edit: link fixed)

I don't believe anybody should be forced to pay the bring in on this hand, but I'm looking for a better rules clarification or at least an online "industry standard" for this instance.

Any thoughts?

I guess it depends on what "acts first" means. Robert's Rules of Poker uses the same language as that WSOP rule. I interpreted it to mean posting the bring-in but I've yet to find a definite answer one way or the other.

I posted the question to 2+2 as well and am hoping that a PokerStars rep will answer how they handle the question.

A clarification for observers (I know the OP knows this): the rule linked above was for Stud where the low card normally has the bring in. Since this was Razz, the high card (king) held by player LadyLuck was the bring-in. Since he/she was all-in from the ante, the bring-in was passed to the next player (Silly_Rabbit).